DAV PUBLIC SCHOOL
MANPUR GAYA BIHAR
SAMPLE PAPER- I
Class X: Social
Science (Code 087)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General
Instructions
- There are 38 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
- The question paper comprises four
subject-wise sections:
- Section A: History (20 Marks) — Questions 1 to 9
- Section B: Geography (20 Marks) — Questions 10 to
19
- Section C: Political Science (20 Marks) — Questions
20 to 28
- Section D: Economics (20 Marks) — Questions 29 to
38
- Very Short Answer (VSA) questions carry 2 marks each (answers
should not exceed 40 words).
- Short Answer (SA) questions carry 3 marks each (answers
should not exceed 60 words).
- Long Answer (LA) questions carry 5 marks each (answers
should not exceed 120 words).
- Case-Based Questions (CBQ) carry 4 marks each with three
sub-questions (answers should not exceed 100 words).
- Map-Based Questions carry 5 marks: Q.9 in Section A (2 marks)
and Q.19 in Section B (3 marks).
- Internal choices are provided in select
3-mark, 5-mark, and Map questions.
- Separate questions are provided for
Visually Impaired candidates in lieu of visual/map items.
Section A: History
(20 Marks)
1. Which of
the following measures were introduced by the French revolutionaries to create
a sense of collective identity amongst the
French people?
(a) The ideas of la patrie (the
fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen).
(b) A new tricolour flag to replace
the royal standard.
(c) Preservation of internal customs
duties and dues to support provincial trade.
(d) Introduction of a centralized
administrative system formulating uniform laws.
Options:
A. (a), (b), and (c)
B. (a), (b), and (d)
C. (b), (c), and (d)
D. (a) and (c) only (1
Mark)
2. Study
the given historical description and choose the correct event:
A prominent congress session where the
resolution for 'Purna Swaraj' (complete independence)
was formalized in December 1929 under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru.
A. Nagpur Congress Session
B. Madras Congress Session
C. Lahore Congress Session
D. Calcutta Congress Session (1
Mark)
3. Read the statements given below and choose the
correct option:
- Statement I: The introduction of the potato in Europe
dramatically improved the diet and longevity of the poorest peasants.
- Statement II: When disease destroyed the potato crop in
Ireland in the mid-1840s, hundreds of thousands died of starvation during
the Great Irish Potato Famine.
A. Statement I is correct and
Statement II is incorrect.
B. Statement I is incorrect and
Statement II is correct.
C. Both Statements I and II are
correct.
D. Both Statements I and II are
incorrect. (1
Mark)
4. Arrange the following developments in print
and intellectual history in chronological
sequence:
I. Erasmus published his Latin
translation of the New Testament and criticized clerical excess.
II. The Inquisition began maintaining
an Index of Prohibited Books.
III. Marco Polo returned to Italy from
China, bringing knowledge of woodblock printing.
IV. Louise-Sebastien Mercier declared,
"Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble
before the virtual writer!"
Options:
A. III, I, II, IV B. I, III, II, IV
C. III, II, I, IV D. IV, I, III, II (1
Mark)
5. "Food travels and reflects historical
links of cultural exchange and global connectedness."
Justify this statement with two
historical examples. (2
Marks)
6A. How did the idea of nationalism develop
through cultural processes like folklore, folk
songs, and visual symbols in
nineteenth-century Europe? Explain with examples.
(3
Marks)
OR
6B. Explain the conditions and developments that
led to the unification of Germany under
Prussian
leadership. (3 Marks)
7A. How did different social groups—peasants of
Awadh and tribal communities of Andhra
Pradesh—interpret the call of the
Non-Cooperation Movement? Evaluate their forms
of struggle and underlying grievances. (5
Marks)
OR
7B. Why did Mahatma Gandhi find salt to be a
powerful symbol capable of uniting the nation?
Assess the significance of the Salt March in launching the Civil Disobedience Movement. (5
Marks)
8. Read the extract
given below and answer the questions that follow:
By the end of the eighteenth century,
in many parts of Europe, a literacy revolution occurred
as churches set up schools in villages, carrying literacy to peasants and artisans. By the late eighteenth century,
in some parts of Europe literacy rates were as
high as 60 to 80 percent. As literacy and schools spread in European countries,
there was a virtual reading mania.
People wanted books to read and printers produced
books in ever-increasing numbers. New forms of popular literature appeared in print, targeting new
audiences. Booksellers employed pedlars who roamed
around villages, carrying little books for sale. There were almanacs or ritual calendars, along with ballads and folktales. In England, penny chapbooks were carried by petty pedlars known as
chapmen, and sold for a penny, so that even the poor could buy them. In France,
the Bibliothèque Bleue were low-priced small books printed on poor quality paper and bound in
cheap blue covers.
- 8.1. What led to the surge in literacy rates across European rural
communities by the late eighteenth century? (1 Mark)
- 8.2. Mention one feature of the Bibliothèque Bleue published in
France. (1 Mark)
- 8.3. Analyze how the emergence of cheap popular literature enabled
lower-income groups to engage with print culture. (2 Marks)
9. MAP SKILL-BASED
QUESTION (History)
Two places A and B are
marked on the political outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names:
- A. The place where the Indian National Congress held its session in
September 1920.
- B. The place where the calling off of the Non-Cooperation Movement
took place due to violent incident in 1922. (2
Marks)
Section B: Geography (20 Marks)
10. Land left uncultivated for more than five
agricultural years is classified as:
A. Current fallow
B. Fallow other than current fallow
C. Culturable waste land
D. Barren and wasteland (1
Mark)
11. Match the multi-purpose projects with their
respective river basins:
|
Column I
(Dam/Project) |
Column II (River
Basin) |
|
1. Hirakud Project |
X. Krishna Basin |
|
2. Nagarjuna Sagar |
Y. Mahanadi Basin |
|
3. Sardar Sarovar |
Z. Narmada Basin |
Options:
A. 1-Y, 2-X, 3-Z B. 1-X, 2-Y, 3-Z
C. 1-Z, 2-X, 3-Y D. 1-Y, 2-Z, 3-X (1 Mark)
12. Consider the following statements regarding
primitive subsistence farming:
(a) It is practiced on small patches
of land using primitive tools like hoe, dao, and digging
sticks.
(b) It depends heavily on monsoon
rains, natural soil fertility, and favorable environmental conditions.
(c) It utilizes high doses of
biochemical inputs and modern irrigation to obtain higher yield.
(d) Land productivity is low as the
farmer does not use fertilizers or other modern inputs.
Choose the correct option:
A. (a), (b), and (c) B. (b), (c), and (d)
C. (a), (b), and (d D. (a) and (c) only (1 Mark)
13. An industrial entrepreneur plans to establish
an aluminum smelting plant. Which pair of locational
factors is most indispensable for ensuring its commercial viability?
A. Proximity to ocean ports and
abundant forest resources
B. Continuous, regular supply of
inexpensive electricity and assured bauxite ore availability
C. Proximity to limestone quarries and
natural gas reserves
D. Cheap agricultural labor and cold
climatic conditions (1
Mark)
14. In which of the following states is the
'Bhitarkanika' mangrove ecosystem, noted for high
biodiversity and community involvement in wildlife protection, located?
A. West Bengal B. Odisha
C. Andhra Pradesh D. Tamil Nadu (1
Mark)
15. In the question given below, a statement of
Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason
(R):
- Assertion (A): The Chota Nagpur plateau region has the
maximum concentration of iron and steel industries in India.
- Reason (R): The region possesses low-cost iron ore,
high-grade raw materials in proximity, cheap labor, and vast growth
potential in the home market.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true. (1
Mark)
16. Soil degradation and declining land fertility
are major challenges in semi-arid and arid tracts
of northwestern India. Suggest any two soil conservation measures suited to these physical terrains. (2
Marks)
17A. Differentiate between conventional and
non-conventional sources of energy. Why is an increasing
reliance on non-conventional energy sources essential for sustainable economic development in India? (5
Marks)
OR
17B. "Agriculture and industry are not
exclusive of each other; they move hand in hand." Examine this statement with appropriate arguments related to
agro-based manufacturing
industries. (5
Marks)
18. Read the given
text and answer the following questions:
Conservation of biodiversity is vital
for preserving ecological diversity and our life support systems—water, air, and soil. It also preserves the
genetic diversity of plants and
animals for better growth of species and breeding. In response to demands by conservationists, the Indian Wildlife
(Protection) Act was implemented in 1972, with various
provisions for protecting habitats. An all-India list of protected species was also published. The thrust of the program
was towards protecting the remaining population
of certain endangered species by banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in
wildlife. Subsequently, central and many state
governments established national parks and wildlife sanctuaries. The central government also announced several projects
for protecting specific animals which were
gravely threatened, including the tiger, the one-horned rhinoceros, and others.
- 18.1. State the primary objective behind implementing the Indian
Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. (1 Mark)
- 18.2. Mention any two specific measures undertaken by the government
under wildlife preservation programs. (2 Marks)
- 18.3. Name any one project launched by the government to protect a
gravely threatened animal species mentioned in the context. (1 Mark)
19. MAP SKILL-BASED
QUESTION (Geography)
I. On the given outline map of India, locate and label any one of the
following:
- (a) Tehri Dam
OR
- (b) Salal Dam (1
Mark)
II. On the same map, locate and label any two
of the following features:
- (i) Bokaro Coal Mine
- (ii) Gandhinagar Software Technology Park
- (iii) Marmagao Major Sea Port (2
Marks)
Section C: Political Science (20 Marks)
20. In the question given below, a statement of
Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason
(R):
- Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted 'Majoritarianism' as a
state policy to establish Sinhala supremacy over the Sri Lankan Tamils.
- Reason (R): Democratic regimes must submit to the
absolute will of the demographic majority community, irrespective of
minority interests, to ensure political stability.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true. (1
Mark)
21. Which of the following features is an example
of the "horizontal" distribution of power?
A. Sharing of power between the Union
government and State governments
B. Sharing of power among the
Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary
C. Sharing of power between religious
and linguistic minority groups
D. Sharing of power through
reservation for socially disadvantaged castes (1 Mark)
22. An examination of federal jurisdictions
reveals subjects of shared legislative authority. Under which list of the Indian Constitution do subjects like
'Education', 'Forests', and 'Trade
Unions' fall?
A. Union List
B. State List
C. Concurrent List
D. Residuary Subjects (1
Mark)
23. Consider the following scenario regarding
democratic accountability:
A government introduces a
controversial economic regulation without consulting stakeholders or permitting debate in Parliament. The public demands
transparency and challenges the
law through judicial review.
Which essential attribute of democracy
does this scenario highlight?
A. Promoting rapid economic growth
over public welfare
B. Decision-making based on
established norms, deliberation, and transparency
C. Ability to eliminate all
socio-economic disparities immediately
D. Concentration of authority in the
hands of the executive for quick decisions
(1
Mark)
24. Why did the creators of the Indian
Constitution choose the model of a secular state? Mention two constitutional features that reflect Indian
secularism. (2 Marks)
25. "A public expression of gender division
and caste inequalities in politics does not always lead to social breakdown; it often strengthens democracy."
Explain. (2 Marks)
26. Examine three distinct ways in which
communalism can manifest itself in everyday politics
and public life. (3
Marks)
27A. Analyze how a federal system balances the twin
objectives of safeguarding national unity
and accommodating regional diversity, using the institutional mechanisms of Indian federalism. (5
Marks)
OR
27B. "Democracy stands much superior to any
other form of government in promoting dignity
and freedom of the individual." Assess this statement with arguments concerning gender equality, caste
discrimination, and civil liberties. (5 Marks)
28. Read the given
text and answer the following questions:
In a democracy, political parties play
a critical role in shaping public opinion and organizing
government. Parties contest elections, put forward distinct policies and programs, and play a decisive role in making
laws for a country. Formally, laws are debated
and passed in the legislature, but since most members belong to a party, they go by the direction of party leadership
irrespective of personal opinion. Parties recruit
leaders, train them, and make them ministers to run the government in the way they want. Those parties that lose in
the elections play the role of opposition to the
parties in power, by voicing different views and criticizing government for its
failures or wrong policies.
- 28.1. Explain the role played by the opposition party in ensuring
accountability in a democracy. (1
Mark)
- 28.2. How do political parties influence the process of legislation in
Parliament?
(2 Marks)
- 28.3. Why are political parties considered an indispensable vehicle for
aggregating diverse public opinions into coherent government policies? (1 Mark)
Section D: Economics (20 Marks)
29. Two individuals living in the same region have
conflicting developmental goals. A corporate
developer wants a multi-lane expressway through farmland, while local farmers demand preservation of fertile
topsoil and tubewell irrigation. What does this situation demonstrate?
A. Different people have the same
development goals.
B. What may be development for one may
be destructive for the other.
C. Development is purely determined by
national per capita income.
D. National income figures always
resolve conflicting personal goals. (1
Mark)
30. Identify the incorrect pair regarding the
sectors of economic activity:
A. Mining and Quarrying — Primary
Sector
B. Spinning cotton yarn into cloth —
Secondary Sector
C. ATM booths and Call Centers —
Tertiary Sector
D. Processing milk into cheese at home
— Tertiary Sector (1
Mark)
31. Examine the table showing data on formal and
informal credit sources for rural households
in India:
|
Category of
Rural Household |
Share of Formal
Credit (%) |
Share of
Informal Credit (%) |
|
Poor households |
15 |
85 |
|
Households with few
assets |
47 |
53 |
|
Well-off households |
72 |
28 |
|
Rich households |
90 |
10 |
Which inference is supported by this
data?
A. Poor households have easy access to
institutional credit due to lack of asset backing.
B. The informal sector fulfills the
vast majority of credit needs of poor households, making them
vulnerable to high interest rates.
C. Rich households depend
predominantly on moneylenders and relatives.
D. Formal sources charge higher
interest rates than informal moneylenders.(1 Mark)
32. Which of the following bodies supervises the
functioning of formal sources of loans and monitors
cash reserve ratios maintained by banks in India?
A. Ministry of Finance
B. State Bank of India
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. NITI Aayog (1
Mark)
33. Why do lenders frequently demand
"collateral" before sanctioning a loan?
A. To guarantee the borrower will
invest only in government bonds.
B. As an asset that acts as a
guarantee until the borrowed sum is repaid.
C. To reduce the bank's operational
staffing costs.
D. To legally take ownership of the
borrower’s family properties immediately.
(1
Mark)
34. In the question given below, a statement of
Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason
(R):
- Assertion (A): Foreign trade creates an opportunity for
producers to reach beyond domestic markets.
- Reason (R): Choice of goods in the markets rises, and
prices of similar goods in two markets tend to become equal due to foreign
trade.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true. (1
Mark)
35. Distinguish between open unemployment and
disguised unemployment with the help of a
suitable real-life example from the rural sector. (3 Marks)
36. "Cheap and affordable credit is crucial
for a country's economic development." Evaluate this statement with three supportive arguments. (3 Marks)
37. Analyze the positive and negative consequences
of globalization on Indian small-scale industrial
producers and local workers. (3 Marks)
38A. Study the data given below comparing key
development indicators for three hypothetical
states:
|
State |
Infant Mortality
Rate (per 1,000 live births) |
Literacy Rate
(%) |
Net Attendance
Ratio (Secondary Stage) (%) |
|
State X |
12 |
92 |
83 |
|
State Y |
38 |
66 |
58 |
|
State Z |
29 |
74 |
64 |
- (i) Which state shows the highest social
infrastructure achievement in terms of basic health and educational
access? (1 Mark)
- (ii) Why does per capita income alone fail
to provide a complete picture of human well-being and equitable
development? Explain using the indicators in the table.
(2
Marks)
- (iii) Suggest two targeted interventions
that State Y should adopt to improve its developmental standing. (2
Marks)
OR
38B. Analyze the significance of the Human
Development Index (HDI) compiled by the United
Nations Development Programme (UNDP). How does the UNDP's approach to measuring development differ fundamentally
from the World Bank's criterion of Per Capita
Income? (5
Marks)
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